Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?
Last Updated: 01.07.2025 05:03
Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.
Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.
Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.
What's the difference between a zero shot, a few shot, and a chain of thought prompting?
While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.
You'll usually find your answer there.
Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.
Man eats dubious street food—ends up blowing apart his GI tract - Ars Technica
If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.
What's (not “whats”) the rule?
There's no rule.
Why can’t the British eat or drink anything unless they place a table cloth on the table first?
Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.